100% Free CAS-005 Files For passing the exam Quickly UPDATED Jun 13, 2026 [Q217-Q242]

100% Free CAS-005 Files For passing the exam Quickly UPDATED Jun 13, 2026

CAS-005 Dumps Questions Study Exam Guide

NEW QUESTION # 217
A company wants to invest in research capabilities with the goal to operationalize the research output. Which of the following is the best option for a security architect to recommend?

A. Dark web monitoring
B. Honeypots
C. Threat intelligence platform
D. Continuous adversary emulation

Answer: C

Explanation:
Investing in a threat intelligence platform is the best option for a company looking to operationalize research output. A threat intelligence platform helps in collecting, processing, and analyzing threat data to provide actionable insights. These platforms integrate data from various sources, including dark web monitoring, honeypots, and other security tools, to offer a comprehensive view of the threat landscape.
Why a Threat Intelligence Platform?
Data Integration: It consolidates data from multiple sources, including dark web monitoring and honeypots, making it easier to analyze and derive actionable insights.
Actionable Insights: Provides real-time alerts and reports on potential threats, helping the organization take proactive measures.
Operational Efficiency: Streamlines the process of threat detection and response, allowing the security team to focus on critical issues.
Research and Development: Facilitates the operationalization of research output by providing a platform for continuous monitoring and analysis of emerging threats.
Other options, while valuable, do not offer the same level of integration and operationalization capabilities:
A: Dark web monitoring: Useful for specific threat intelligence but lacks comprehensive operationalization.
C: Honeypots: Effective for detecting and analyzing specific attack vectors but not for broader threat intelligence.
D: Continuous adversary emulation: Important for testing defenses but not for integrating and operationalizing threat intelligence.

NEW QUESTION # 218
A systems engineer is configuring a system baseline for servers that will provide email services. As part of the architecture design, the engineer needs to improve performance of the systems by using an access vector cache, facilitating mandatory access control and protecting against:
* Unauthorized reading and modification of data and programs
* Bypassing application security mechanisms
* Privilege escalation
* interference with other processes
Which of the following is the most appropriate for the engineer to deploy?

A. Privileged access management
B. Self-encrypting disks
C. NIPS
D. SELinux

Answer: D

Explanation:
The most appropriate solution for the systems engineer to deploy is SELinux (Security-Enhanced Linux).
Here's why:
Mandatory Access Control (MAC): SELinux enforces MAC policies, ensuring that only authorized users and processes can access specific resources. This helps in preventing unauthorized reading and modification of data and programs.
Access Vector Cache: SELinux utilizes an access vector cache (AVC) to improve performance. The AVC caches access decisions, reducing the need for repetitive policy lookups and thus improving system efficiency.
Security Mechanisms: SELinux provides a robust framework to enforce security policies and prevent bypassing of application security mechanisms. It controls access based on defined policies, ensuring that security measures are consistently applied.
Privilege Escalation and Process Interference: SELinux limits the ability of processes to escalate privileges and interfere with each other by enforcing strict access controls. This containment helps in isolating processes and minimizing the risk of privilege escalation attacks.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NSA's Guide to the Secure Configuration of Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5 (SELinux) NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations

NEW QUESTION # 219
A systems engineer is configuring a system baseline for servers that will provide email services. As part of the architecture design, the engineer needs to improve performance of the systems by using an access vector cache, facilitating mandatory access control and protecting against:
* Unauthorized reading and modification of data and programs
* Bypassing application security mechanisms
* Privilege escalation
* interference with other processes
Which of the following is the most appropriate for the engineer to deploy?

A. Privileged access management
B. Self-encrypting disks
C. NIPS
D. SELinux

Answer: D

Explanation:
The most appropriate solution for the systems engineer to deploy is SELinux (Security-Enhanced Linux).
Here's why:
* Mandatory Access Control (MAC): SELinux enforces MAC policies, ensuring that only authorized users and processes can access specific resources. This helps in preventing unauthorized reading and modification of data and programs.
* Access Vector Cache: SELinux utilizes an access vector cache (AVC) to improve performance. The AVC caches access decisions, reducing the need for repetitive policy lookups and thus improving system efficiency.
* Security Mechanisms: SELinux provides a robust framework to enforce security policies and prevent bypassing of application security mechanisms. It controls access based on defined policies, ensuring that security measures are consistently applied.
* Privilege Escalation and Process Interference: SELinux limits the ability of processes to escalate privileges and interfere with each other by enforcing strict access controls. This containment helps in isolating processes and minimizing the risk of privilege escalation attacks.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NSA's Guide to the Secure Configuration of Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5 (SELinux)
* NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations

NEW QUESTION # 220
Company A and Company D are merging Company A's compliance reports indicate branch protections are not in place. A security analyst needs to ensure that potential threats to the software development life cycle are addressed. Which of the following should me analyst consider when completing this basic?

A. If role-based training is deployed
B. If developers are unable to promote to production
C. If DAST scans are routinely scheduled
D. If DAST code is being stored to a single code repository

Answer: C

Explanation:
Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) is crucial for identifying and addressing security vulnerabilities during the software development life cycle (SDLC). Ensuring that DAST scans are routinely scheduled helps in maintaining a secure development process.
Why Routine DAST Scans?
Continuous Security Assessment: Regular DAST scans help in identifying vulnerabilities in real- time, ensuring they are addressed promptly.
Compliance: Routine scans ensure that the development process complies with security standards and regulations.
Proactive Threat Mitigation: Regular scans help in early detection and mitigation of potential security threats, reducing the risk of breaches.
Integration into SDLC: Ensures security is embedded within the development process, promoting a security-first approach.

NEW QUESTION # 221
Embedded malware has been discovered in a popular PDF reader application and is currently being exploited in the wild. Because the supply chain was compromised, this malware is present in versions 10.0 through 10.3 of the software's official versions. The malware is not present in version 10.4.
Since the details around this malware are still emerging, the Chief Information Security Officer has asked the senior security analyst to collaborate with the IT asset inventory manager to find instances of the installed software in order to begin response activities. The asset inventory manager has asked an analyst to provide a regular expression that will identify the affected versions. The software installation entries are formatted as follows:
Reader 10.0
Reader 10.1
Reader 10.2
Reader 10.3
Reader 10.4
Which of the following regular expression entries will accurately identify all the affected versions?

A. Reader( )[1][0].[0-3:
B. Reader[11[01X.f0-3'
C. Reader( )[1][0] X.[1-3:
D. Reader(*)[1][0].[0-4:

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:
Understand the Question Requirements:The goal is to use a regular expression (regex) to match software versions 10.0 through 10.3, but exclude version 10.4.
Review Regex Syntax:
[ ] indicates a character set (matches any one character in the set).
[0-3] matches any digit between 0 and 3.
\. escapes the period (.) so it matches a literal period instead of acting as a wildcard.
( ) groups parts of the regex together.
Analyze Each Option:
Option A: Reader(*)[1][0].[0-4:
Incorrect. The use of (*) is not valid syntax in this context and [0-4 is incomplete or misformatted.
Option B: Reader[11[01X.f0-3'
Incorrect. This is an invalid regex syntax, mixing character sets and mismatched brackets.
Option C: Reader( )[1][0].[0-3:
Correct. This regex is valid and matches "Reader 10.0", "Reader 10.1", "Reader 10.2", and "Reader 10.3" while excluding "Reader 10.4".
Breakdown:
Reader: Matches the text "Reader".
[1][0]: Matches "10" as a combination of two characters.
\.: Matches the literal period.
[0-3]: Matches any single digit between 0 and 3.
Option D: Reader( )[1][0] X.[1-3:
Incorrect. The syntax X.[1-3 is invalid, and this does not match the required versions.
Conclusion:The regex in Option C correctly identifies all affected versions (10.0, 10.1, 10.2, 10.3) while excluding the unaffected version (10.4).

NEW QUESTION # 222
An auditor is reviewing the logs from a web application to determine the source of an incident. The web application architecture includes an internet-accessible application load balancer, a number of web servers in a private subnet, application servers, and one database server in a tiered configuration. The application load balancer cannot store the logs. The following are sample log snippets:
Web server logs:
192.168.1.10 - -
[24/Oct/2020 11:24:34 +05:00] "GET /bin/bash" HTTP/1.1" 200 453 Safari/536.36
192.168.1.10 - -
[24/Oct/2020 11:24:35 +05:00] "GET / HTTP/1.1" 200 453 Safari/536.36
Application server logs:
24/Oct/2020 11:24:34 +05:00 - 192.168.2.11 - request does not match a known local user. Querying DB
24/Oct/2020 11:24:35 +05:00 - 192.168.2.12 - root path. Begin processing Database server logs:
24/Oct/2020 11:24:34 +05:00
[Warning] 'option read_buffer_size1 unassigned value 0 adjusted to 2048
24/Oct/2020 11:24:35 +05:00
[Warning] CA certificate ca.pem is self-signed.
Which of the following should the auditor recommend to ensure future incidents can be traced back to the sources?

A. Install a certificate signed by a trusted CA.
B. Use stored procedures on the database server.
C. Install a software-based HIDS on the application servers.
D. Enable the X-Forwarded-For header at the load balancer.
E. Store the value of the $_SERVER

Answer: D

Explanation:
['REMOTE_ADDR'] received by the web servers.
Explanation:
The issue is tracing the original source of requests in a tiered architecture with a load balancer. The web server logs show internal IPs (192.168.1.10), not the external client IPs, because the load balancer forwards requests without preserving the source. Enabling theX-Forwarded-Forheader on the load balancer adds the client's original IP to the HTTP request headers, allowing downstream servers to log it. This ensures traceability without altering the architecture significantly.
Option A:Correct-X-Forwarded-For is the standard solution for preserving client IPs through load balancers.
Option B:A Host-based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) detects anomalies but doesn't address IP traceability.
Option C:A trusted CA certificate fixes the self-signed warning but is unrelated to source tracking.
Option D:Stored procedures improve database security but don't help with IP logging.
Option E:Storing $_SERVER
['REMOTE_ADDR'] captures the loadbalancer's IP, not the client's, unless X-Forwarded-For is enabled.

NEW QUESTION # 223
A news organization wants to implement workflows that allow users to request that untruthful data be retraced and scrubbed from online publications to comply with the right to be forgotten. Which of the following regulations is the organization most likely trying to address?

A. DORA
B. CCPA
C. COPPA
D. GDPR

Answer: D

Explanation:
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is the regulation most likely being addressed by the news organization. GDPR includes provisions for the "right to be forgotten," which allows individuals to request the deletion of personal data that is no longer necessary for the purposes for which it was collected. This regulation aims to protect the privacy and personal data of individuals within the European Union.

NEW QUESTION # 224
A company wants to use loT devices to manage and monitor thermostats at all facilities The thermostats must receive vendor security updates and limit access to other devices within the organization Which of the following best addresses the company's requirements''

A. Only allowing Internet access to a set of specific domains
B. Configuring IoT devices to always allow automatic updates
C. Only allowing operation for loT devices during a specified time window
D. Operating lot devices on a separate network with no access to other devices internally

Answer: D

Explanation:
The best approach for managing and monitoring IoT devices, such as thermostats, is to operate them on a separate network with no access to other internal devices. This segmentation ensures that the IoT devices are isolated from the main network, reducing the risk of potential security breaches affecting other critical systems. Additionally, this setup allows for secure vendor updates without exposing the broader network to potential vulnerabilities inherent in IoT devices.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Recommends network segmentation for IoT devices to minimize security risks.
NIST Special Publication 800-183, "Network of Things": Advises on the isolation of IoT devices to enhance security.
"Practical IoT Security" by Brian Russell and Drew Van Duren: Discusses best practices for securing IoT devices, including network segmentation.

NEW QUESTION # 225
A company is developing a new service product offering that will involve the Security Officer (CISO) researching the relevant compliance regulations. Which of the following best describes the CISO's action?

A. Due diligence
B. Reference framework
C. Data retention
D. Data classification

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step
Option A: Data retention
Data retention refers to how long an organization retains its data to comply with legal, regulatory, or business requirements.
The CISO's action focuses on researching compliance regulations, not on retaining data.
Option B: Data classification
Data classification deals with organizing data based on sensitivity and importance. While important, this is unrelated to researching compliance regulations.
Option C: Due diligence
Correct Answer.
Due diligence involves investigating and verifying processes, regulations, or environments to ensure compliance with laws and standards.
The CISO researching compliance regulations aligns directly with the concept of due diligence.
This concept is foundational in the CASP+ syllabus under governance and legal compliance.
Option D: Reference framework
Reference frameworks provide templates for structuring security initiatives (e.g., ISO 27001 or NIST CSF).
While a framework may aid compliance, researching compliance regulations is a due diligence activity, not a reference framework application.
Reference:
CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide (Current Edition) - Chapters on GRC and Legal Compliance.
CASP+ Objective 3.2: Integrate enterprise resilience.

NEW QUESTION # 226
A recent security audit identified multiple endpoints have the following vulnerabilities:
* Various unsecured open ports
* Active accounts for terminated personnel
* Endpoint protection software with legacy versions
* Overly permissive access rules
Which of the following would best mitigate these risks? (Select three).

A. Patching
B. Local drive encryption
C. Unneeded services disabled
D. Secure boot
E. Logging
F. Removal of unused accounts
G. Address space layout randomization
H. Enabling BIOS password

Answer: A,C,F

Explanation:
Disabling unneeded servicesreduces the attack surface by closing open ports.Patchingensures that endpoint protection software and operating systems are up-to-date, reducing vulnerability exposure.Removing unused accountseliminates access paths for malicious users exploiting dormant accounts. Secure boot, BIOS passwords, and drive encryption are important, but they address different layers of security than the vulnerabilities listed.
Reference:

NEW QUESTION # 227
An analyst wants to conduct a risk assessment on a new application that is being deployed. Given the following information:
* Total budget allocation for the new application is unavailable.
* Recovery time objectives have not been set.
* Downtime loss calculations cannot be provided.
Which of the following statements describes the reason a qualitative assessment is the best option?

A. An organizational risk register tracks all risks and mitigations across business units.
B. The analyst has previous work experience in application development.
C. The organization wants to find the monetary value of any outages.
D. Sufficient metrics are not available to conduct other risk assessment types.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Qualitative risk assessment is used when quantitative data (monetary loss, exact downtime cost, RTO) is unavailable or unreliable. The SecurityX CAS-005 GRC objectives note that qualitative methods rely on expert judgment, likelihood scales, and impact ratings rather than financial calculations. In this case, insufficient metrics rule out quantitative analysis.
Option A (work experience) is irrelevant to the choice of assessment type.
Option C (risk register) supports tracking, not selecting the assessment method.
Option D describes a quantitative goal, which is not possible with the given lack of metrics.

NEW QUESTION # 228
An organization recently acquired another company that is running a different EDR solution. A SOC analyst wants to automate the isolation of endpoints that are found to be compromised.
Which of the following workflows best mitigates the risk of false positives and reduces the spread of malicious code?

A. Setting a policy on each EDR management console to isolate all endpoints that trigger any alerts
B. Using a SOAR solution to look up entities via a TIP platform and isolate endpoints via APIs
C. Reviewing all alerts manually in the various portals and taking action to isolate them
D. Automating the suppression of all alerts that are not critical and sending an email asking SOC analysts to review these alerts

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 229
Operational technology often relies upon aging command, control, and telemetry subsystems that were created with the design assumption of:

A. communicating over distributed environments
B. an available EtherneVIP network stack for flexibility.
C. operating in an isolated/disconnected system.
D. untrustworthy users and systems being present.
E. anticipated eavesdropping from malicious actors.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step by Step Explanation:
Understanding the Scenario: The question focuses on the historical design assumptions behind older operational technology (OT)systems, particularly in the context of command, control, and telemetry.
Analyzing the Answer Choices:
A: operating in an isolated/disconnected system: This is the most accurate assumption for many legacy OT systems. Historically, these systems weredesigned to operate in air-gapped environments, completely isolated from external networks (including the internet).
Reference: This aligns with the historical evolution of OT security. Initially, security was based on physical isolation rather than network security controls. This is a common topic in CASP+ discussions on OT security challenges.
B: communicating over distributed environments: While OT systems can be distributed, the core design assumption, especially for older systems, wasn't centered around interconnectivity in the way modern IT systems are.
C: untrustworthy users and systems being present: This is a more modern security principle (Zero Trust).
Older OT systems often operated under a model of implicit trust within their isolated environment.
D: an available EtherneVIP network stack for flexibility: Ethernet/IP is a relatively newer industrial protocol.
Older OT systems often used proprietary or less flexible communication protocols. Also, there is no such thing as EtherneVIP.
E: anticipated eavesdropping from malicious actors: While security was a concern, the primary threat model for older, isolated OT systems didn't heavily emphasize external malicious actors due to the assumed isolation.
Why A is the Correct Answer:
Air Gap: The concept of an air gap (physical isolation) was the cornerstone of security for many legacy OT systems. These systems were not connected to the internet or corporate networks, making them less susceptible to remote attacks.
Legacy Protocols: Older OT systems often used proprietary or serial communication protocols, not designed for internet connectivity.
Implicit Trust: Within the isolated environment, there was often an assumption of trust among the connected components.
CASP+ Relevance: The challenges of securing legacy OT systems, especially in the face of increasing connectivity, are a key area of focus in CASP+. Understanding the historical context and the shift in security paradigms is crucial.
Modern OT Security Considerations (Elaboration):
Convergence: Today, the lines between IT and OT are blurring. OT systems are increasingly connected to corporate networks and the internet, necessitating a shift from isolation-based security to a more comprehensive approach.
Threat Landscape: Modern OT systems face a wider range of threats, including targeted attacks from sophisticated actors.
Security Controls: Modern OT security involves implementing network segmentation, intrusion detection, access controls, and other measures to protect against these evolving threats.
In conclusion, the primary design assumption for many older OT systems was that they would operate in isolated or disconnected environments. This historical context is important for understanding the security challenges faced by organizations today as they integrate these legacy systems into modern, connected environments. This is a core concept discussed in CASP+ in the context of OT security and risk management.

NEW QUESTION # 230
Asecuntv administrator is performing a gap assessment against a specific OS benchmark The benchmark requires the following configurations be applied to endpomts:
* Full disk encryption
* Host-based firewall
* Time synchronization
* Password policies
* Application allow listing
* Zero Trust application access
Which of the following solutions best addresses the requirements? (Select two).

A. SCAP
B. SBoM
C. CASB
D. SASE
E. HIDS

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
To address the specific OS benchmark configurations, the following solutions are most appropriate:
C: SCAP (Security Content Automation Protocol): SCAP helps in automating vulnerability management and policy compliance, including configurations like full disk encryption, host-based firewalls, and password policies.
D: SASE (Secure Access Service Edge): SASE provides a framework for Zero Trust network access and application allow listing, ensuring secure and compliant access to applications and data.
These solutions together cover the comprehensive security requirements specified in the OS benchmark, ensuring a robust security posture for endpoints.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses SCAP and SASE as part of security configuration management and Zero Trust architectures.
* NIST Special Publication 800-126, "The Technical Specification for the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)": Details SCAP's role in security automation.
* "Zero Trust Networks: Building Secure Systems in Untrusted Networks" by Evan Gilman and Doug Barth: Covers the principles of Zero Trust and how SASE can implement them.
By implementing SCAP and SASE, the organization ensures that all the specified security configurations are applied and maintained effectively.

NEW QUESTION # 231
After an organization met with its ISAC, the organization decided to test the resiliency of its security controls against a small number of advanced threat actors. Which of the following will enable the security administrator to accomplish this task?

A. Deployment of a honeypot
B. Internal reconnaissance
C. Adversary emulation
D. Reliability factors

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Adversary emulation simulates specific advanced persistent threat (APT) behaviors and techniques to test an organization's security posture. In SecurityX CAS-005, this is part of red-teaming and purple-teaming strategies for realistic resilience testing.
* Reliability factors (B) relate to operational uptime, not threat simulation.
* Honeypots (C) attract attackers but do not directly emulate specific adversaries.
* Internal reconnaissance (D) is one phase of an attack simulation, not the full emulation of advanced threat actors.

NEW QUESTION # 232
A security engineer needs to create multiple servers in a company's private cloud. The servers should have a virtual network infrastructure that supports connectivity, as well as security configurations applied using predefined templates. Which of the following is the best option for the security engineer to consider for the deployment?

A. Integrating the cloud provider API to the CI/CD pipeline model used by the company
B. Installing a container orchestration solution locally, configuring the infrastructure, and cloning the solution
C. Using Terraform to implement an infrastructure as code model with the existing private cloud solution
D. Creating templates on the cloud provider marketplace and modeling the solution using those templates

Answer: C

Explanation:
Using Terraform allows the security engineer to implement Infrastructure as Code, enabling consistent creation of servers, virtual networking, and security configurations from predefined templates within the private cloud. This ensures repeatability, scalability, and security compliance.

NEW QUESTION # 233
A security analyst is using data provided from a recent penetration test to calculate CVSS scores to prioritize remediation. Which of the following metric groups would the analyst need to determine to get the overall scores? (Select three).

A. Environmental
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
D. Impact
E. Attack vector
F. Temporal
G. Base
H. Availability

Answer: A,F,G

Explanation:
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) v3.1 uses three metric groups to calculate overall scores:
Base,Temporal, andEnvironmental.
* Base (E):Mandatory metrics assessing exploitability (e.g., attack vector) and impact (confidentiality, integrity, availability).
* Temporal (A):Optional metrics reflecting the current state of the vulnerability (e.g., exploit availability, remediation level).
* Environmental (F):Optional metrics tailoring the score to the organization's context (e.g., security requirements).
* B, C, D (Availability, Integrity, Confidentiality):These are subcomponents of the Base Impact metrics, not standalone groups.
* G (Impact):A category within Base, not a group.
* H (Attack vector):A single Base metric, not a group.

NEW QUESTION # 234
A company's help desk is experiencing a large number of calls from the finance department slating access issues to www bank com The security operations center reviewed the following security logs:

Which of the following is most likely the cause of the issue?

A. DNS traffic is being sinkholed.
B. The DNS was set up incorrectly.
C. Recursive DNS resolution is failing
D. The DNS record has been poisoned.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Sinkholing, or DNS sinkholing, is a method used to redirect malicious traffic to a safe destination. This technique is often employed by security teams to prevent access to malicious domains by substituting a benign destination IP address.
In the given logs, users from the finance department are accessing www.bank.com and receiving HTTP status code 495. This status code is typically indicative of a client certificate error, which can occur if the DNS traffic is being manipulated or redirected incorrectly. The consistency in receiving the same HTTP status code across different users suggests a systematic issue rather than an isolated incident.
Recursive DNS resolution failure (A) would generally lead to inability to resolve DNS at all, not to a specific HTTP error.
DNS poisoning (B) could result in users being directed to malicious sites, but again, would likely result in a different set of errors or unusual activity.
Incorrect DNS setup (D) would likely cause broader resolution issues rather than targeted errors like the one seen here.
By reviewing the provided data, it is evident that the DNS traffic for www.bank.com is being rerouted improperly, resulting in consistent HTTP 495 errors for the finance department users. Hence, the most likely cause is that the DNS traffic is being sinkholed.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX study materials on DNS security mechanisms.
Standard HTTP status codes and their implications.

NEW QUESTION # 235
A company receives reports about misconfigurations and vulnerabilities in a third-party hardware device that is part of its released products. Which of the following solutions is the best way for the company to identify possible issues at an earlier stage?

A. Performing regular red-team exercises on the vendor production line
B. Implementing a monitoring process for the integration between the application and the vendor appliance
C. Performing vulnerability tests on each device delivered by the providers
D. Implementing a proper supply chain risk management program

Answer: D

Explanation:
Implementing a proper supply chain risk management program is the best way to identify potential issues earlier in the process. This program involves assessing the risks and vulnerabilities of third-party hardware and software during the procurement process and throughout the lifecycle of the product. By establishing a strong risk management framework, the company can proactively detect and address misconfigurations and vulnerabilities before the products are released or deployed.

NEW QUESTION # 236
An analyst has prepared several possible solutions to a successful attack on the company. The solutions need to be implemented with the least amount of downtime. Which of the following should the analyst perform?

A. Implement every solution one at a time in a virtual lab, running a metric collection each time.
After the collection, run the attack simulation, roll back each solution, and then implement the next. Choose the best solution based on the best metrics.
B. Implement all the solutions at once in a virtual lab and then collect the metrics. After collection, run the attack simulation. Choose the best solution based on the best metrics.
C. Implement all the solutions at once in a virtual lab and then run the attack simulation. Collect the metrics and then choose the best solution based on the metrics.
D. Implement every solution one at a time in a virtual lab, running an attack simulation each time while collecting metrics. Roll back each solution and then implement the next. Choose the best solution based on the best metrics.

Answer: D

Explanation:
To minimize downtime, testing should occur in a virtual lab, not production. The best approach is to test solutions methodically: implement one solution at a time, run an attack simulation, collect metrics, roll back, and repeat. This isolates each solution's effectiveness, ensuring accurate metrics for decision-making without production impact.

NEW QUESTION # 237
An organization is developing on Al-enabled digital worker to help employees complete common tasks such as template development, editing, research, and scheduling. As part of the Al workload the organization wants to Implement guardrails within the platform. Which of the following should the company do to secure the Al environment?

A. Grant the system the ability to self-govern
B. Enhance the training model's effectiveness.
C. Limn the platform's abilities to only non-sensitive functions
D. Require end-user acknowledgement of organizational policies.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Limiting the platform's abilities to only non-sensitive functions helps to mitigate risks associated with AI operations. By ensuring that the AI-enabled digital worker is only allowed to perform tasks that do not involve sensitive or critical data, the organization reduces the potential impact of any security breaches or misuse.
Enhancing the training model's effectiveness (Option B) is important but does not directly address security guardrails. Granting the system the ability to self-govern (Option C) could increase risk as it may act beyond the organization's control. Requiring end-user acknowledgement of organizational policies (Option D) is a good practice but does not implement technical guardrails to secure the AI environment.

NEW QUESTION # 238
A recent security audit identified multiple endpoints have the following vulnerabilities:
* Various unsecured open ports
* Active accounts for terminated personnel
* Endpoint protection software with legacy versions
* Overly permissive access rules
Which of the following would best mitigate these risks? (Select three).

A. Patching
B. Local drive encryption
C. Unneeded services disabled
D. Secure boot
E. Logging
F. Removal of unused accounts
G. Address space layout randomization
H. Enabling BIOS password

Answer: A,C,F

NEW QUESTION # 239
An audit finding reveals that a legacy platform has not retained loops for more than 30 days. The platform has been segmented due to its interoperability with newer technology. As a temporary solution, the IT department changed the log retention to 120 days. Which of the following should the security engineer do to ensure the logs are being properly retained?

A. Configure the SIEM to aggregate the logs
B. Configure a Python script to move the logs into a SQL database.
C. Configure a scheduled task nightly to save the logs
D. Configure event-based triggers to export the logs at a threshold.

Answer: A

Explanation:
To ensure that logs from a legacy platform are properly retained beyond the default retention period, configuring the SIEM to aggregate the logs is the best approach. SIEM solutions are designed to collect, aggregate, and store logs from various sources, providing centralized log management and retention. This setup ensures that logs are retained according to policy and can be easily accessed for analysis and compliance purposes.

NEW QUESTION # 240
During a gap assessment, an organization notes that OYOD usage is a significant risk. The organization implemented administrative policies prohibiting BYOD usage However, the organization has not implemented technical controls to prevent the unauthorized use of BYOD assets when accessing the organization's resources.
Which of the following solutions should the organization implement to better reduce the risk of BYOD devices? (Select two).

A. Conditional access, to enforce user-to-device binding
B. NAC, to enforce device configuration requirements
C. DLP, to enforce data protection capabilities
D. PAM. to enforce local password policies
E. SD-WAN. to enforce web content filtering through external proxies
F. DLP to enforce data protection capabilities: Protects data but does not control BYOD device access and compliance.
G. Cloud 1AM to enforce the use of token based MFA

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
To reduce the risk of unauthorized BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) usage, the organization should implement Conditional Access and Network Access Control (NAC).
Why Conditional Access and NAC?
Conditional Access:
User-to-Device Binding: Conditional access policies can enforce that only registered and compliant devices are allowed to access corporate resources.
Context-Aware Security: Enforces access controls based on the context of the access attempt, such as user identity, device compliance, location, and more.
Network Access Control (NAC):
Device Configuration Requirements: NAC ensures that only devices meeting specific security configurations are allowed to connect to the network.
Access Control: Provides granular control over network access, ensuring that BYOD devices comply with security policies before gaining access.
Other options, while useful, do not address the specific need to control and secure BYOD devices effectively:
A ; Cloud IAM to enforce token-based MFA: Enhances authentication security but does not control device compliance.
D . PAM to enforce local password policies: Focuses on privileged account management, not BYOD control.
E . SD-WAN to enforce web content filtering: Enhances network performance and security but does not enforce BYOD device compliance.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"Conditional Access Policies," Microsoft Documentation
"Network Access Control (NAC)," Cisco Documentation

NEW QUESTION # 241
A user from the sales department opened a suspicious file attachment. The sales department then contacted the SOC to investigate a number of unresponsive systems, and the team successfully identified the file and the origin of the attack. Which of the following is the next step of the incident response plan?

A. Containment
B. Remediation
C. Response
D. Recovery

Answer: A

Explanation:
Incident response follows a standard process (e.g., NIST 800-61): Preparation, Identification, Containment, Eradication, Recovery, Lessons Learned. After identifying the attack (file and origin), the next step is Containment-limiting the spread or impact (e.g., isolating systems) before remediation or recovery.
* Option A:Remediation (fixing the root cause) follows containment.
* Option B:Correct-containment prevents further damage post-identification.
* Option C:"Response" is too vague; it encompasses all steps.
* Option D:Recovery (restoring systems) comes after containment and eradication.

NEW QUESTION # 242
......

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